“Everyone Onlyism” - The wedding of the Lamb / King's Son.

Dear in Christ,

These aren't my refutations on anyone's beliefs or theories. These are my thoughts as a Full Preterist and a believer in Universal Reconciliation. I'm attempting to answer a few questions that I was asked or those I asked myself.

Why should we be preaching the gospel if the Second Coming of Our Lord took place in the first century?

I hope you are familiar with Parable of the Great Banquet in Matt 22:1-14. Those who were invited for the wedding (Jews) failed to turn up and even mistreated or even murdered the messengers. At this point:

Mat 22:7 But when the king heard thereof, he was wroth: and he sent forth his armies, and destroyed those murderers, and burned up their city. (JERUSALEM)
Mat 22:8 Then saith he to his servants, The wedding is ready, but they which were bidden were not worthy.

Now, he orders his servants to invite everyone (with absolutely no set criteria) for the wedding feast.

Mat 22:9 Go ye therefore into the highways, and as many as ye shall find, bid to the marriage.
Mat 22:10 So those servants went out into the highways, and gathered together all as many as they found, both bad and good: and the wedding was furnished with guests.

It's absolutely evident that this invitation to “all and sundry” happened after the destruction of “their city” (Jerusalem, 70 AD).

I've read in Pulpit Commentaries that “The apostles' special ministrations to the Jews seemed to have ended at the martyrdom of St. James the Less, A.D. 62”. Though the commentators haven't mentioned their sources (except Josephus, 'Ant.,' 20:09, 1), if this be true, these “all and sundry” needn't be the children of Israel.

Wedding feast of the Lamb

Now we are on to Revelation 19 and the wedding of the Lamb.

Rev 19:2 For true and righteous are his judgments: for he hath judged the great whore, which did corrupt the earth with her fornication, and hath avenged the blood of his servants at her hand.
Rev 19:3 And again they said, Alleluia. And her smoke rose up for ever and ever.

It's obvious from the context that the wedding of the Lamb takes place after the great whore is judged. (For anyone who understand Preterism, the great whore was the first century Jerusalem and her religious system.) The great whore was judged in 70 AD.

Rev 19:7 Let us be glad and rejoice, and give honour to him: for the marriage of the Lamb is come, and his wife hath made herself ready.
Rev 19:8 And to her was granted that she should be arrayed in fine linen, clean and white: for the fine linen is the righteousness of saints.
Rev 19:9 And he saith unto me, Write, Blessed are they which are called unto the marriage supper of the Lamb. And he saith unto me, These are the true sayings of God.

(Obviously, the bride and those who are called unto the wedding feast can't be the same.)

• Is there a reasonable way to prove that the wedding feast in Matt 22:1-14 and Rev 19:1-9 are different? 
• Is there a way to prove that these people who were invited consisted of the children of Israel alone?

Preach the gospel even after the fall of “Babylon”

Rev 14:6 And I saw another angel fly in the midst of heaven, having the everlasting gospel to preach unto them that dwell on the earth, and to every nation, and kindred, and tongue, and people,

This is just before announcing that Babylon has fallen. (It appears to me that the fall of Babylon has been progressing even while the event in the verse above was happening.)

Rev 14:7 Saying with a loud voice, Fear God, and give glory to him; for the hour of his judgment is come: and worship him that made heaven, and earth, and the sea, and the fountains of waters.

Rev 14:8 And there followed another angel, saying, Babylon is fallen, is fallen, that great city, because she made all nations drink of the wine of the wrath of her fornication.

If this gospel has to be preached only till the fall of Jerusalem (Babylon), it makes no sense, because preaching among the Jews had been fulfilled well before the fall of Jerusalem (Rom 10:16-18; Col 1:23; ...).

In all these three instances invitation / preaching to everyone had to take place after the destruction / judgment of the great city / whore. It cannot about those who were judged along with that whorish system. What's the point in preaching to “all and sundry” if the gospel has to offer them?

[Some may say that the casting out of the one without a “wedding garment” disproves Universal Reconciliation and it happens along with the judgment of Jews (Matt 8:12; 25:30). They may have to toil a lot to prove that the destruction of the city and this casting out happens at the same time. As of now, I think it was about the Judaizers that crept into the early church.]

Waiting for your feedback on this topic,

In Christ,

Tomsan Kattackal.